TCS NQT 2025 All India Mock Test | Ultimate Practice for Guaranteed Success

TCS NQT 2025 All India Mock Test : Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) National Qualifier Test (NQT) is a highly sought-after recruitment examination for recent graduates and final-year students looking to secure positions in TCS and other prestigious organizations. To assist candidates in their preparation, the TCS NQT 2025 All India Mock Test serves as an excellent opportunity to evaluate their skills, familiarize themselves with the exam format, and enhance their prospects for success.

Reasons to Participate in the TCS NQT 2025 All India Mock Test

The mock test is structured to emulate the real TCS NQT exam environment, offering students the following advantages:

• Authentic Exam Experience – Acquaint yourself with the exam format, difficulty level, and types of questions.
• Time Management Skills – Practice solving questions rapidly and accurately within the allocated time.
• Performance Insights – Recognize strengths and weaknesses to target areas needing improvement.
• Enhanced Confidence – Mitigate exam-related anxiety and boost problem-solving efficiency.

TCS NQT 2025 All India Mock Test Exam Structure and Syllabus

The TCS NQT includes several sections, such as:

• Numerical Ability – Quantitative aptitude, number sequences, data interpretation.
• Verbal Ability – Grammar, reading comprehension, sentence completion.
• Reasoning Ability – Logical reasoning, puzzles, and pattern identification.
• Programming (for TCS Digital roles) – Coding and problem-solving using C, Java, Python, and other programming languages.

Registration Process for the TCS NQT 2025 All India Mock Test

Candidates can register for the mock test via various online platforms that provide complimentary or fee-based mock exams. It is advisable to undertake multiple mock tests prior to the actual exam to optimize preparation.

Ace the TCS NQT with Our Expert-Led Crash Course – Fast-Track Your Preparation for Success!

Quantitative Aptitude- 20Questions

1. What is the remainder when 2²⁴³ is divided by 9?

1. 5
2. 8
3. 7
4. 3

2. The average score of a player in 43 innings is 72. In his 44th match, he scored a certain amount of runs that increased his average by 2 runs. What was his score in his last match?

1. 160
2. 190
3. 165
4. 155

3. The men population of a city is increased by 20% from the previous year while the women population is increased by 42,5%. If the total population is increased by 30%, then find the women population of the city was what percent of the men population in the previous year?

1. 90%
2. 80%
3. 70%
4. 60%

4. Ram starts a factory and hires workers for that factory. The average monthly salary of 8 workers is < ₹ 4,000, the average monthly salary of 7 other workers is ₹ 4,500, the average monthly salary of 5 other workers is ₹ 5,000, the average monthly salary of 3 other workers is ₹ 5,200 and the average monthly salary of 2 other workers is ₹ 7,800. Calculate how much salary(amount) Ram has to pay to all the workers of the factory in a month.

1. 1,19,560
2. 1,18,770
3. 1,19,700
4. 1,18,650

5. (3a +19)% of 2225 = 890 = (b- 11)% of 500. What is the cube root of b/a?

1. 7
2. 3
3. 21
4. 25

6. If the length of a rectangle is increased by 20% and its breadth is decreased by 20%, then the area

1. decreases by 4%
2. decreases by 6%
3. does not change
4. increases by 5%

7. In what time does a sum of money becomes triple the amount at a simple interest of 10% per annum?

1. 20 Years
2. 10 Years
3. 15 Years
4. 25 Years

8. What sum of money at compound interest will amount to Rs. 6930 in 3 years, if the rate of interest is 5% for the first year. 10% for the second year and 20% for the third year?

1. Rs. 5000
2. Rs. 4000
3. Rs. 4500
4. Rs. 5500

9. The loss incurred by a tea dealer in tea by selling 20 kg of tea at the rate of Rs 330 per kg is the same as the gain made by him by selling 25 kg of it at Rs 384 per kg. What is his gain percentage when he sells that tea at the rate of Rs 390 per kg?

1. 8(1/3)
2. 8(3/4)
3. 7(2/5)
4. 7(1/2)

10. There are two electronic goods dealers in a locality, both marking their ware at the same price. Dealer A offers a cash discount of Rs. 5,000 on cash purchases and a further 10% festival discount. Dealer B offers 10% festival discount and a further cash discount of Rs. 5000. I want to purchase an LCD TV and a mobile phone whose marked prices are Rs. 30,000 and Rs. 20,000 respectively. Which among the following will turn out to be the least expensive?

1. Buy both from A.
2. Buy both from B.
3. Buy the LCD TV from A and the mobile phone from B.
4. Buy the mobile phone from A and the LCD TV from B.

11. What is the sum (in Rs) which when divided among A. B. C and D in the proportion 2:3:5:8 provides Rs. 8420 less to D than what it provides to him when the proportion is 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/5 : 1/8?

1. 37,530
2. 17,540
3. 12,510
4. 25,020

12. It is given that,

(8x² -5y²) : (4x²-3y²) = 18 : 1; where x and y are positive whole numbers. Which among the following CANNOT be a value of (x² + y²)?

1. 2825
2. 452
3. 113
4. 5424

13. The ages of three friends in months are in the ratio 27: 29: 30, One year later, their age will be in the ratio of 29: 31: 32. What is their present average age?

1. 15 years
2. 13 years 8 months
3. 14 years 4 months
4. 14 years

14. A tea trader blends two varieties of tea costing Rs.600 and Rs.720 per kg in a certain ratio and marks up the mixture by Rs. 160 per kg. What will be the ratio in which he mixes the two varieties if he earns 10% profit after offering 12% discount?

1. 3:4
2. 2:1
3. 2:3
4. 3:2

15. P and Q together can complete a work in 32 days and with the help of R they can complete the work in 30 days. In how much time can R alone complete the work?

1. 72 days
2. 64 days
3. 48 days
4. 96 days

16. A tank has two inlets A and B and an outlet C. A and B can independently fill the tank when empty in 10 and 12(1/2) hours respectively. C can empty the full tank in 50 hours. A is opened at 6 am and C at 8 am. At 9 am, B is opened and A is closed. At what time will the tank be full?

1. 9 pm
2. 3 pm
3. 6 pm
4. 12 noon

17. An express train takes 55 seconds to overtake a 250-meter long goods train running at 36 kmph and 18 seconds to cross a 330-meter long passenger train coming in the opposite direction at 54 kmph. What is the speed (in kmph) of the express train?

1. 84
2. 66
3. 60
4. 72

18. The length of a rectangular sheet is twice its breadth. If the area of the rectangular sheet is 242 cm2. what is the length of the rectangular sheet?

1. 12 cm
2. 22 cm
3. 18 cm
4. 16 cm

19. The consumption of electricity (in units) of ten families for a month is given below:

345, 256, 312, 298, 425, 250, 270, 316, 326, 312

What is the product of mean deviation about the mean of the data and the mode of the data?

1. 11348
2. 10608
3. 11052
4. 9856

20. The following table gives the rainfall on six days at random during a summer month:

Date	3	10	15	21	27	31
Rainfall in mms	38	39	34	40	35	36

What is the standard deviation (in mm nearest to two decimal places)?

1. 2.25
2. 1.92
3. 2.16
4. 2.07

Logical Reasoning- 20Questions

1. There are five persons in a group: Raju, Sanjay, Deepak, Suresh and Mukesh. Deepak is elder to Raju, but not tall as suresh. Suresh is younger to Sanjay and taller than Mukesh and Raju. Sanjay is taller than Mukesh but not taller than Raju. Mukesh is elder to sanjay but the shortest of all friends. Who among the following is the eldest?

1. Suresh
2. Sanjay
3. Either Deepak or Mukesh
4. Deepak

2. Eight friends – L, M, J, P, K, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. P is sitting fifth to the right of T who is sitting to the immediate right of S. Opposite to R is P. R is not sitting adjacent to either M or J. K is sitting between P and S. M is sitting second to the right of L.

Which of the following statement is true?

1. J is sitting opposite to S
2. R is sitting between J and P
3. L is sitting adjacent to T
4. M is sitting second to the right of K

3. Three statements are followed by conclusions numbered I, II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.

Statements:

All journals are books.

Some books are fans.

All fans are wood.

Conclusion (I): Some journals are wood.

Conclusion (II): Some fans are books

1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
2. Only conclusion (I) follows.
3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
4. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. The question given below consists of two statements I and II. You have to decide whether the facts given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question given below. Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Question: In which direction is A with respect to E?

I. C is to the northwest of E. D is to the east of C. A is to the southwest of C.

II. B is to the west of E. A is to the southwest of C. D is to the northeast of B.

III. A is to the west of B.

1. Only the facts of statement I are sufficient to answer the question.
2. Only facts in statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. The facts of both the statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
4. Only the facts of statement II are sufficient to answer the question.

5. In which exact direction was Rafiq facing?

Statements:

I. Rafiq’s shadow fell to Karan’s right when both were standing with their backs towards each other.

II. It was morning after sunrise, and Rafiq and Karan were standing close to each other, facing opposite directions.

Options:     

1. Statement I alone is sufficient.
2. Statement II alone is sufficient.
3. Both statements I and II together are not sufficient.
4. Both statements I and II together are necessary.

6. Six eminent personalities -A, B, C, D, E and F- are officiating as judges for a talent show, They are sitting in the first row, facing the stage. Each one of them has a different profession. Their profession are Artist, Actor, Musician, Sports person, Engineer and Doctor, but not in the same order. The Artist and the Sportsperson are on either side of A, immediately next to him. The Actor and the Musician are sitting at of the not the Artist. The Musician is sitting to the immediate left of C, who is sitting to the left of the Engineer. B is the doctor. E is two places to the right of F.

Who is sitting three places to the right of the Artist?

1. A
2. The actor
3. F
4. The doctor

7. Select the WRONG term in the following series:

CEIG, DGJJ, EIKM, FKLP, GMMT

1. FKLP
2. DGJJ
3. GMMT
4. EIKM

8. In a certain code

J@k means J is K’s daughter.

J%K means J is K’s wife

J+k means k is J’s father

J/k means k is J’s mother.

F@R%I/E%N

How is R related to N in the given expression?

1. Son-in-law
2. Mother
3. Daughter-in-law
4. Mother-in-law     

9. In a certain code

G#H means G is H’s father.

G $ H means H is sister of G.

G% H means G is H’s wife.

G@H means G is H’s mother.

So in S#C%R$Y@P

How is C related to Y in the given expression?

1. Sister-in-law
2. Daughter-in-law
3. Mother-in-law
4. Son-in-law

10. Find the WRONG term in the letter-cluster series given below.

WRO, YTQ, CXD, IDA, QLI

1. CXD
2. YTQ
3. IDA
4. QLI

11. Find the WRONG term in the given series:

OPQ, KRT, GTW, CVZ, ZXC

1. CVZ
2. KRT
3. OPQ
4. ZXC

12. In the following diagram, the triangle stands for ‘males’, and the circle stands for ‘doctors’, the rectangle stands for ‘government employed’, the hexagon stands for ‘corona warriors’. The numbers in different segments show the number of persons for that segment.

How many government employed doctors are either corona warriors or males or both?

1. 38
2. 73
3. 22
4. 35

13. A statement is followed by three assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement

Statement:

The advancement of technology will lead to increase in the sale of smartphone due to its multipurpose usage.

Assumptions:

I. With the help of smartphone people uses many facilities that are available online now a day.

II. There are more functions of smartphone rather than just conversation.

1. Neither I nor II is implicit
2. Both I and II are implicit
3. Only II is implicit
4. Only I is implicit

14. Given below is a question followed by two statements I and II, each containing some information. Decide which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

What is the age of Sumit?

Statements:

I.Sumit is five years younger than Amit, who is double the age of Prateek

II. Prateek is 10 years older than Ravi, whose age is 22 years

1. Statement II alone is sufficient
2. Both statements I and II are necessary
3. Statement I alone is sufficient
4. Both statements I and II are not sufficient

15. In each of the five pairs of letter-clusters, the letters in the second term is a rearranged/transformed form of the letters in the first term in a particular pattern. In which two pairs, has the transformation been done the same way?

P. MASON : AMNOS

Q. PARTY : APRYT

R. FAULT : AFTLU

S. LODGE : DOLEG

T. CARGO : ACOGS

1. S and T
2. P and R
3. Q and R
4. R and S

16. The following are the criteria for selecting trainees for the IT department of a company.

The candidate must

1. Be an engineering graduate in IT or Computer Science or Electronics with at least 65% of marks

2. Be not less than 22 years and not more than 27 years of age as on 1.3.2020

3. Have secured more than 80% in HSC examination

4. Have scored at least 60% in the written test and at least 50% in the interview

However if the candidate fulfils all the above except

(i) at 2 and/or 3 but has scored at least 70% in the written test and 60% in the interview his/her case is referred to the General Manager, HR

(ii) at 3 and/or 4 but has secured more than 75% in the engineering examination his/her case is to be referred to the VP,HR

Based on the criteria given above and without adding any additional information, you have to make a decision for the candidate whose profile has been given below. Mark your answer by choosing the appropriate alternative

Poonam passed graduate engineering in computer science in 2015 at the age of 21 years with 78% of marks. She scored 65% in the interview as well as in the written test. She has secured 80% of marks in the HSC examination. What decision would be taken in her case?

1. Her case is to be referred to the VP, HR
2. Her case is to be referred to the General manager, HR
3. She is not to be selected
4. She is to be selected

17. In a certain code, P + Q means P is the father of Q; P – Q means P is the sister of Q and P / Q means P is the brother of Q.

Which of the following equations shows that A is the uncle of D?

1. A – D + C / B
2. A + B / C – D
3. A / B + C – D
4. A – B + C / D

18. Statements:

All heroines are actresses.

Some actresses are dancers.

All dancers are swimmers.

Conclusions:

I. Some dancers are definitely not actresses

Il. ‘All actresses are swimmers’ is a possibility.

III. No dancer is heroine.

1. Only II is true.
2. Only I and II are true.
3. Only II and III are true.
4. None of the conclusions is true.

19. There are five persons in a family A,B,C,D and E. In which, one is working as a doctor; one is a lawyer and one is an engineer. Both A and D are unmarried ladies, who are not working. None of the ladies is working as a doctor and a lawyer in the family. E is the husband of the only one married couple in the family. B is the brother of C and neither a lawyer nor an engineer.

Who is the lawyer?

1. B
2. A
3. E
4. D

20. Who is the doctor in the family?

1. A
2. E
3. D
4. B

Verbal Ability- 25Questions

1. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate pair of words from the options given below:

India’s Arunima Sinha ____ became the world’s first woman amputee ____ Mount Everest in 2013, has added another impressive record to her profile.

1. who / that climbed
2. who / to climb
3. that / for climbing
4. which / to climb

2. For the four sentences (S1 to S4) of the paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given. From the options P. Q and R, choose appropriate sentences for 52 and Sa respectively

S1: A deluge that resulted from a glacial melt on Nanda Devi flooded the Rishiganga river in Uttarakhand recently.

S2:

S3:

S4: However, the India Meteorological Department has said that no rains are forecast, and officials of the Central Water Commission say that they have been able to contain the flooding.

Options:

P: Experts on climate change say new lakes will develop close to steep and unstable mountain walls.

Q: It washed away at least two hydroelectric power projects on the Dhauliganga river, a tributary of the Alaknanda.

R: There were also concerns that the excess water would further travel downstream to the river Alaknanda and threaten villages as well as hydro projects on the river.

1. S1 : P, S2 : R
2. S1 : Q, S2 : R
3. S1 : R. S2 : Q
4. S1 : R, S2 : P

3. One part of the sentence below may contain an error, Identify the part. If there is no error, choose No error.

Climate change is set to become/ the greatest threat to India’s future/unless we got our act together soon.

1. No error
2. Climate change is set to become
3. unless we get our act together soon.
4. the greatest threat to India’s future

4. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

I am always ready to do for them ____ I can do.

1. whichever
2. whatever
3. however
4. whoever

5. The following sentence can be revised to make better reading. Choose the sentence that is the best answer.

All things being equal, the leaders of the Students’ Association will consider the arguments and make their final decision by vote on Wednesday next week at an open meeting

1. The leaders of the Students’ Association will consider the argument and will announce their final decision by voting at an open meeting on the coming Wednesday next week.
2. All things being equal, the leaders of the Students’ Association will consider the argument before making their final decision by vote on Wednesday next week at an open matting
3. All things being equal, the leaders of the Students’ Association will consider the argument and make their final decision by Wednesday next week at an open meeting.
4. The leaders of the Students Association will consider the arguments and announce the final decision by vote at the next Wednesday’s open meeting.

6. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

The first cellular phone was available from Motorola in 1983. However, the first integration of radio and telephone communications took place shortly after the turn of the twentieth century. Bell Labs (which would one day be part of AT&T) created the first version of a mobile, two-way, voice-based radio telephone. The first ship-to-shore radiotelephones were used in 1919. A radiotelephone was installed in a Detroit Police Department police car m

1921; the technology would be introduced into other dispatch services in later years, In Europe, radio telephone communications were also used on first-class passenger trains about 1926. Bell Labs claims the first truly mobile telephone call was made in St Louis, Missouri, on June 17, 1946. The systems operated under the push to talk format. A user selected a channel, used the push button feature to speak, and had to be connected by an operator. By 1948, wireless telephone service was available in almost 100 cities and highway corridors. Customers included utilities, truck fleet operators, and reporters. There were only about 5,000 customers in the United States at the time making 30,000 weekly calls.

The wireless network could not handle large call volumes. A single transmitter on a central tower provided a small number of channels for an entire metropolitan area. A handful of receiver towers handled the call return signals. No more than three subscribers could make calls at one time in any city. The service cost $15 per month, plus 30 to 40 cents per local call, and the equipment weighed 80 pounds.

Which of these can be stated as a characteristic of installing cellular connectivity?

1. Networks were available only in 30 cities and highway corridors.
2. A transmitter on a central tower offered a few channels to an entire city.
3. Payment rates were charged exclusively on a monthly fixed rate.
4. The wireless networks could manage a large number of calls.

7. What was a major limitation of early wireless telephone networks in the 1940s?

1. The service was available only on highways
2. Calls required a wired connection to operate
3. Only a few users could make calls at the same time
4. The service was free but unreliable

8. Which of the following was a distinctive feature of the newly started mobile networks?

1. The wireless networks could handle a large number of calls.
2. Networks were available only in 30 cities and highway corridors.
3. Payment rates were charged exclusively on a fixed monthly basis.
4. A transmitter on a central tower provided limited channels for an entire city.

9. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

We waited for hours in the queue ___________ we got our chance to get the vaccinations.

1. already
2. previously
3. before
4. earlier

10. Some sentences are missing from the text. Choose from the options P. Q and R the most appropriate sentence for each gap (1-2) in the text.

S1: Viruses ate some sort of DNA which are packed in a protein shell.

S2:

S3:

S4: When the cell divides, the DNA of the virus gets copied along with the host DNA, increasing the level of infection in the body.

Options:

P. With time, the viruses linger stitch their own DNA into that of the host.

Q. The virus hijacks the cell’s machinery to build new viruses, eventually causing the cell to burst and spill its infectious contents.

R. in order to reproduce, they need to find a host, attach themselves to the living cells and introduce their own genetic material into the cell.

1. S2: P; S3: R
2. S2: R; S3: Q
3. S2: P; S3: Q
4. S2: R: S3: P

11. One part of the sentence below may contain an error Idensty the part. N there is no enter, choose No error.

The state government has proposed to put on place the new portal to promote transparency and simplification in land administration.

1. to put on place the new portal
2. to promote transparency and simplification in land administration
3. The state government has proposed
4. No error

12. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

The excellent performance of the Indian team at the international level has ____ its critics.

1. doubted
2. challenged
3. suffered
4. silenced

13. You are going to read a text about atmosphere. Some sentences are missing from the text. Choose from the list (A-C) the most appropriate sentence for each gap (1-2) in the need to use.

This influx of demand in two and three tier markets also necessitates localised marketing efforts to make the brand vibrate better with the consumer. ____1____. Therefore the consumer allegiance and loyalty. ____2____. Hence, it’s essential that brands provide benefits rather than making superficial promises.

A. Of late, the consumers have become a lot more challenging and hence require unambiguous communication based on honesty and straight talk.

B. The present economic conditions are not viable for the local businesses to make any upgrades to their products

Therefore,

C. Given the present economic conditions, consumers are willing to pay for products that give added value to their lives.

1. (1)-B, (2)-A
2. (1)-A. (2)-C
3. (1)-C, (2)-A
4. (1)-B, (2)-C

14. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The lightning ____ brilliantly in the sky, creating different patterns.

1. crashed
2. waved
3. flashed
4. thrashed

15. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blanks.

Almost all colonial buildings have been so altered and developed that their ____ structure is no longer ____.

1. original , recognizable
2. external, necessary
3. Internal, attractive
4. main, found

16. One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ ..

The process of building and developing some areas of land to restore there natural state is known as rewilding.

1. some areas of land to restore
2. there natural state is known as rewilding.
3. The process of building and developing
4. No error

17. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The committee suspects a ____ play by one of its sports players,

1. decent
2. coarse
3. role
4. foul

18. One part of the sentence below may contain an error. Identify the part. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’.

All the students of the class decided to head to the principal’s office to complain for the new teacher’s misconduct.

1. to complain for the new teacher’s misconduct.
2. head to the principal’s of 83332Secondun.
3. All the students of the class decided
4. No error

19. Which of the following sentences uses the formal language?

1. I guess we need to shell out more for dinner.
2. We have issued passes to all eligible candidates.
3. I told you guys that he is lazy.
4. Aman isn’t coming to the party.

20. Fill in the blank with the most suitable option.

The thick cloud cover makes for ____ weather in the winter.

1. gloomy
2. indifferent
3. insipid
4. thin

21. Fill in the blank with the most suitable option.

I asked him ____ a solution, and he gave me one.

1. to
2. of
3. in
4. for

22. Fill in the blank with the most suitable option.

The books of the time period speak ____ a huge famine which caused massive crisis all over Europe.

1. to
2. of
3. for
4. with

23. Which of the following sentences uses informal language?

1. Please spare no effort in investigating the issue.
2. He’s constantly barging in to disturb my peace.
3. We are pleased with the outcome.
4. Report the matter to the committee immediately.

24. Identify the grammatically correct sentence:

1. The manager, along with his team, are attending the conference.
2. The manager, along with his team, is attending the conference.
3. The manager along with his team attend the conference.
4. The manager along with his team were attending the conference.

25. Choose the sentence that uses formal language:

1. We regret to inform you that your request has been denied.
2. Sorry, but we can’t approve your request.
3. No way! Your request isn’t happening.
4. Hey, your request got rejected.

Advanced Coding- 2Questions

Q1-Given a sentence as a string, reverse the order of words while alternating the case of each word. The first word should be in lowercase, the second in uppercase, the third in lowercase, and so on.

Example:

Input 1:“Online Study 4u”
Output 1:“4u STUDY online”

Input 2: “Hello World from OpenAI”
Output 2: “openai FROM from HELLO”

Q2. Print a diamond pattern where each row contains increasing numbers in the first half and decreasing numbers in the second half.

Example (N = 4):

Solutions:

Quantitative Aptitude- 20Questions

1. The powers of 2 repeat every 6 cycles when divided by 9: 2,4,8,7,5,1.

Find the remainder of 243 ÷ 6:

243 mod 6 = 3.

The 3rd term in the cycle is 8.

Answer: (b) 8.

2. Given Data:

Average score for 43 innings = 72

New average after 44 innings = 72 + 2 = 74

Runs scored in the 44th inning = ?

Step 1: Find Total Runs in 43 Innings

Total runs in 43 innings=43×72=3096

Step 2: Find Total Runs in 44 Innings

Total runs in 44 innings=44×74=3256

Step 3: Find Runs in the 44th Inning

Runs in 44th inning=3256−3096=160

Answer: 160 (Option A)

3. Let men’s population be 100 and women’s population be W.

Men increased by 20% → Now 120

Women increased by 42.5% → Now 1.425W

Total increased by 30% → New total = 1.3 × (100 + W) = 130 + 1.3W

Step 1: Form Equation

120+1.425W=130+1.3W

Step 2: Solve for W

1.425W−1.3W=130−120

0.125W=10

W=80

Step 3: Find W as a % of M

(80/100)×100 = 80%

Answer: (b) 80%

4. Given Data:

8 workers → Avg salary = ₹ 4,000 → Total salary = 8 × 4,000 = ₹ 32,000

7 workers → Avg salary = ₹ 4,500 → Total salary = 7 × 4,500 = ₹ 31,500

5 workers → Avg salary = ₹ 5,000 → Total salary = 5 × 5,000 = ₹ 25,000

3 workers → Avg salary = ₹ 5,200 → Total salary = 3 × 5,200 = ₹ 15,600

2 workers → Avg salary = ₹ 7,800 → Total salary = 2 × 7,800 = ₹ 15,600

Total Salary Calculation:

32,000+31,500+25,000+15,600+15,600=1,19,700

Answer: ₹ 1,19,700 (Option C)

5. We have the equation:

(3a+19)% of 2225 = 890 = (b−11)% of 500

Step 1: Solve for a

(3a+19)/100 × 2225 = 890

3a+19 × 2225 = 890×100

3a+19 = (890×100)/2225

​3a=40−19=21

a=7

Step 2: Solve for b

(b−11)/100 × 500=890

b−11 × 500 = 890×100

b−11 = (890×100)/500

​b=189

Step 3: Find Cube Root of  b/a

b/a = 189/7 = 27

3√27 = 3

Answer: 3 (Option b)

6. Original Area:

Area = L × B

New Dimensions:

Length increases by 20% → New length = 1.2L

Breadth decreases by 20% → New breadth = 0.8B

New Area:

New Area = (1.2L) × (0.8B) = 0.96 × (L × B)

Change in Area:

0.96 × Original Area = 96% of Original Area

Since the new area is 96% of the original, the decrease in area is:

100% − 96% = 4%

Answer:

Decreases by 4% (Option a)

7. The money triples, meaning Simple Interest (SI) = 2 × Principal (P).

Formula:

SI =  (P×R×T)/100

Given R = 10% per year:

2P = (P×10×T)/100

Cancel P on both sides:

2 = (10𝑇/100)

T=20 years

Answer: 20 Years (Option A)

8. Given:

Final amount A = ₹ 6930

Interest rates:

Year 1: 5%

Year 2: 10%

Year 3: 20%

Using the compound interest formula step by step:

A=P × (1+ R1/100) × (1+ R2/100) × (1+ R3/100)

Substituting values:

6930 = P × (1+ 5/100) × (1+ 10/100) × (1+ 20/100)

6930 = P × 1.05 × 1.10 × 1.20

6930 = P × 1.386

P = 6930/1.386 = 5000

Answer: ₹ 5000 (Option A)

9. Step 1: Set Up the Equation

Loss on 20 kg at Rs. 330 per kg = 20(x – 330)

Gain on 25 kg at Rs. 384 per kg = 25(384 – x)

Since Loss = Gain,

20(x−330)=25(384−x)

Step 2: Solve for x

20x−6600=9600−25x

20x+25x=9600+6600

45x=16200

x=360

So, Cost Price (CP) per kg = Rs. 360.

Step 3: Find Gain Percentage at Rs. 390 per kg

Selling price = Rs. 390

Cost price = Rs. 360

Gain=390−360=30

Gain Percentage=( 30/360 ×100)= 3000/360 = 8(1/3) %

Answer:​ 8(1/3)% (Option A)

10. Dealer A:

LCD TV: (30,000 – 5,000) → 25,000 → 10% off → 22,500

Mobile Phone: (20,000 – 5,000) → 15,000 → 10% off → 13,500

Total from A: 36,000

Dealer B:

LCD TV: 10% off → 27,000 → -5,000 = 22,000

Mobile Phone: 10% off → 18,000 → -5,000 = 13,000

Total from B: 35,000

Cheapest Option: Buy both from B (Option B)

11. Case 1: Ratio 2:3:5:8

Total parts = 18x, so D’s share = 8x.

Case 2: Ratio 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/5 : 1/8

Converting to whole numbers → Ratio 60:40:24:15

Total parts = 139y, so D’s share = 15y.

Given Condition:

15y−8x=8420

Since S = 18x = 139y, solving gives S = 25,020.

Answer: Rs. 25,020 (Option D)

12. Given:

(8x² -5y²) : (4x²-3y²) = 18 : 1

Solving, we get:

49y² = 64x² ⇒ y/x = 8/7

​So, y = 8k,  x = 7k for some

x² + y² = 49k² + 64k² = 113k²

Valid values must be multiples of 113.

Among the options, 452 is not a multiple of 113.

Answer: 452 (Option B)

13. Let their present ages be 27x, 29x, and 30x months.

One year later (adding 12 months), their ages become (27x + 12), (29x + 12), (30x + 12), and their new ratio is 29:31:32.

Setting up the equation:

(27x+12)/29 = (29x+12)/31 = (30x+12)/32 = k

Solving for x, we get x = 6 months.

So, present ages:

27x = 162 months (13 years 6 months)

29x = 174 months (14 years 6 months)

30x = 180 months (15 years)

Average age:

(13.5+14.5+15)/3 = 14 years 4 months

Answer: 14 years 4 months (Option C)

14. Solution using Alligation Method:

Tea costs: Rs. 600/kg and Rs. 720/kg

Markup: Rs. 160, so Marked Price = x + 160

After 12% discount, Selling Price = 1.1x

Solving, we get x = 640 (Cost Price of the mixture).

Using alligation method:

(720 – 640):(640 – 600)=80:40=2:1

Answer: 2:1 (Option B)

15. Step 1: Find P & Q’s Work Rate

P and Q together complete the work in 32 days, so their work rate is: 1/32 (work per day)

Step 2: Find P, Q & R’s Work Rate

With R’s help, they complete the work in 30 days, so their work rate is:1/30 (work per day)

Step 3: Find R’s Work Rate

R’s contribution:

(1/30) − (1/32)

Find LCM of 30 and 32 = 960:

(32−30)/960 = 2/960 = 1/480

So, R alone takes 480 days to complete 5 units of work.

To complete 1 unit, R will take:

480/5 = 96 days

Final Answer: 96 days (Option D)

16. A fills in 10 hrs → 1/10 per hour

B fills in 12.5 hrs → 2/25 per hour

C empties in 50 hrs → 1/50 per hour

Work Done in Each Phase:

6 AM – 8 AM (A alone for 2 hrs):

2/10 = 1/5

8 AM – 9 AM (A & C together for 1 hr):

1/10 − 1/50 = 2/25

Total work so far:

1/5 + 2/25 = 7/25

9 AM Onwards (B & C together):

2/25 − 1/50 = 3/50

Remaining work:

1 − 7/25 = 18/25

Time required:

18/25 ÷ 3/50 = 12 hours

Final Answer:

9 AM + 12 hours = 9 PM

17. Step 1: Overtaking the Goods Train

Length = 250 m, Speed = 36 kmph (10 m/s), Time = 55 sec

(L + 250) = 55(X – 10)

Step 2: Crossing the Passenger Train

Length = 330 m, Speed = 54 kmph (15 m/s), Time = 18 sec

(L + 330) = 18(X + 15)

Step 3: Solve

Subtract equations:

80 = −37X + 820

37X = 740

X = 20 m/s = 72 kmph

Final Answer: 72 kmph

18. Let the breadth be x cm.

Since length is twice the breadth, the length = 2x cm.

Step 1: Use Area Formula

Length × Breadth = Area

2x × x = 242

2𝑥2 = 242

𝑥2 = 121

x=11 cm

Step 2: Find Length

Length = 2 × 11 = 22 cm

Final Answer: 22 cm

19. Mean = (345+256+312+298+425+250+270+316+326+312)/10 = 311

Mode = 312 (most frequent value)

Mean Deviation = ∣345−311∣+∣256−311∣+…+∣312−311∣/10 = 34

Product = 34×312=10608

Answer: 10608

20. Mean = 38+39+34+40+35+36/6 = 37

Squared deviations:

(38−37)2 + (39−37) 2 + (34−37)2 + (40−37)2 + (35−37)2 + (36−37)2

=1+4+9+9+4+1=28

Standard Deviation = √(28/6) = √4.67 ≈ 2.16

Answer: 2.16 (Option C)

Logical Reasoning- 20Questions

1. Finding the eldest person:

We know Mukesh is elder to Sanjay.

Deepak is elder to Raju, but we don’t know if he’s elder to Mukesh.

Suresh is younger than Sanjay, so he is not the eldest.

The eldest person must be either Deepak or Mukesh since they have not been compared directly.

Correct Answer: (C) Either Deepak or Mukesh

2.

Hence, option A is correct.

3. D

4. Answer: (a) Only Statement I is sufficient.

Explanation: Statement I clearly establishes A’s position relative to E, while Statement II alone does not.

5. Answer: (d) Both statements I and II together are necessary.

Explanation:

Statement I: Rafiq’s shadow fell to Karan’s right when they were standing back-to-back. This gives a relative position but not the exact direction.

Statement II: It was morning after sunrise, meaning shadows fall towards the west.

Combining both statements, we can determine Rafiq’s exact facing direction. Hence, both are needed.

6. Answer: d. The doctor
Explanation:
A is in the center with the Artist and Sportsperson on either side.
The Musician is to the immediate left of C, who is left of the Engineer.
B is the Doctor.
E is two places to the right of F.
The Doctor (B) is sitting three places to the right of the Artist.

7. Let’s analyze the pattern in the given series: CEIG, DGJJ, EIKM, FKLP, GMMT

Breaking each term into individual letters:

C → D → E → F → G (Each first letter increases by +1)

E → G → I → K → M (Each second letter increases by +2)

I → J → K → L → M (Each third letter increases by +1)

G → J → M → P → T (The fourth letter follows the pattern: +3, +3, +3, +3)

All terms follow this pattern correctly except GMMT, where the fourth letter T should be S instead.

Thus, GMMT is the incorrect term.

8. c

F@R → F is R’s daughter.

R%I → R is I’s wife, meaning I is R’s husband.

I/E → E is I’s mother, meaning I is E’s son.

E%N → E is N’s wife, meaning N is E’s husband.

Final Relationship:

I is the son of E and N.

R is I’s wife → R is the daughter-in-law of N.

9. a

S#C → S is C’s father.

C%R → C is R’s wife.

R$Y → Y is R’s sister.

Y@P → Y is P’s mother.

Finding C’s Relation to Y:

C is R’s wife → R is C’s husband.

R and Y are siblings → Y is R’s sister.

C is Y’s brother’s wife → C is Y’s sister-in-law.

Correct Answer: (a) Sister-in-law

10. Answer: (a) CXD

The pattern follows +2, +4, +6, +8 for each letter.

In CXD, the second letter D should be Z to follow the pattern.

So, the wrong term is CXD.

11. Observing the first letters: O → K → G → C → Z

Pattern: -4, -4, -4, -3 (should be -4)

Observing the second letters: P → R → T → V → X

Pattern: +2, +2, +2, +2

Observing the third letters: Q → T → W → Z → C

Pattern: +3, +3, +3, +3

The first letter should follow -4, so Z in ZXC is incorrect.

Wrong term: ZXC

12. 35+22+16=73

13. The statement suggests that advancement in technology will lead to increased smartphone sales because of their multipurpose usage.

Assumption I: People use smartphones for various online facilities. This supports the idea of multipurpose usage.)

Assumption II: Smartphones have more functions beyond just conversation. This aligns with “multipurpose usage.”)

Since both assumptions support the statement, the correct answer is:

B. Both I and II are implicit.

14. Both statements together are needed:

Statement I: Amit = 2 × Prateek’s age, Sumit is 5 years younger than Amit. (Not enough)

Statement II: Prateek = 32 years (from Ravi’s age). (Not enough)

Combining: Amit = 64, Sumit = 59.

Answer: B. Both statements I and II are necessary.

15. Answer: C. Q and R

Explanation: Both PARTY : APRYT (Q) and FAULT : AFTLU (R) involve swapping the first two letters and rearranging the remaining letters. Thus, they follow the same transformation pattern.

16. Poonam’s details:

Graduation: Computer Science, 78%

Age: 21 years as of 2015 → 26 years on 1.3.2020

HSC Marks: 80%

Written Test: 65% (meets minimum 60%)

Interview: 65% (meets minimum 50%)

She meets all the required criteria, so she is to be selected.

Answer: D. She is to be selected

17. Correct answer: C. A / B + C – D

A is the brother of B, B is the father of C, and C is the sister of D. So, A is D’s uncle.

18. Answer: Only I and II are true.

Explanation:

Conclusion I: Some dancers are not actresses (true, as “some actresses are dancers” doesn’t mean all dancers are actresses).

Conclusion II: “All actresses are swimmers” is possible (true, as dancers (a subset of actresses) are swimmers).

Conclusion III: False, as some dancers could be heroines.

Thus, only I and II are true.

19. c. E

A: Unmarried lady, not working.
B: Doctor.
C: Engineer.
D: Unmarried lady, not working.
E: Lawyer.

20. d. B

A: Unmarried lady, not working.
B: Doctor.
C: Engineer.
D: Unmarried lady, not working.
E: Lawyer.

Verbal Ability- 25Questions

1. The most appropriate pair of words is:

“who / to climb”

So, the complete sentence would be:

“India’s Arunima Sinha, who became the world’s first woman amputee to climb Mount Everest in 2013, has added another impressive record to her profile.”

2. S1: Q, S2: R

So, the complete paragraph would be:

S1: A deluge that resulted from a glacial melt on Nanda Devi flooded the Rishiganga river in Uttarakhand recently.

S2: It washed away at least two hydroelectric power projects on the Dhauliganga river, a tributary of the Alaknanda.

S3: There were also concerns that the excess water would further travel downstream to the river Alaknanda and threaten villages as well as hydro projects on the river.

S4: However, the India Meteorological Department has said that no rains are forecast, and officials of the Central Water Commission say that they have been able to contain the flooding.

3. The incorrect part of the sentence is:

“unless we got our act together soon.”

The correct phrase should be “unless we get our act together soon.” because the sentence is in the present and future tense, so “got” (past tense) is incorrect.

4. The most appropriate option is:

“whatever”

So, the complete sentence would be:

“I am always ready to do for them whatever I can do.”

5. The best answer is:

(c) All things being equal, the leaders of the Students’ Association will consider the argument and make their final decision by Wednesday next week at an open meeting.

Explanation:

This revision removes unnecessary repetition and wordiness while maintaining clarity.

“Before making” (option b) adds redundancy.

“By Wednesday next week” is a more natural phrasing than “on the coming Wednesday next week” (option a).

“Announce the final decision” (option d) changes the meaning slightly, as the original sentence emphasizes the decision being made, not just announced.

6. The correct answer is:

(b) A transmitter on a central tower offered a few channels to an entire city.

This is supported by the passage, which states that a single transmitter provided limited channels for a metropolitan area.

7. Answer: (c) Only a few users could make calls at the same time

Explanation:

The passage states that no more than three subscribers could make calls at one time in any city due to limited channels, making this the correct choice.

8. Answer: (d) A transmitter on a central tower provided limited channels for an entire city.

Explanation: The passage states that a single transmitter served an entire city with only a few channels, restricting call capacity.

9. Answer: “Before”

Explanation: It correctly shows that waiting happened first, then vaccinations.

10. b. S2: R; S3: Q

So, the complete passage would be:

S1: Viruses are some sort of DNA which are packed in a protein shell.

S2: In order to reproduce, they need to find a host, attach themselves to the living cells, and introduce their own genetic material into the cell. (R)

S3: The virus hijacks the cell’s machinery to build new viruses, eventually causing the cell to burst and spill its infectious contents. (Q)

S4: When the cell divides, the DNA of the virus gets copied along with the host DNA, increasing the level of infection in the body.

11. The incorrect part of the sentence is:

“to put on place the new portal”

The correct phrase should be “to put in place the new portal” instead of “to put on place”, as “put in place” is the correct idiomatic expression.

12. Answer: “silenced”

Complete Sentence:

“The excellent performance of the Indian team at the international level has silenced its critics.”

Explanation:

“Silenced” is the best choice as it means the team’s success has stopped critics from speaking negatively.

13. The correct answer is: (1) – C, (2) – A

Completed Passage:

This influx of demand in two- and three-tier markets also necessitates localized marketing efforts to make the brand vibrate better with the consumer. Given the present economic conditions, consumers are willing to pay for products that give added value to their lives. (C) Therefore, the consumer allegiance and loyalty. Of late, the consumers have become a lot more challenging and hence require unambiguous communication based on honesty and straight talk. (A) Hence, it’s essential that brands provide benefits rather than making superficial promises.

14. “Flashed” – Lightning appears as a sudden, bright light.

15. “Original, recognizable” – The buildings’ first structure is no longer identifiable.

16. Error: “there natural state is known as rewilding.”

Correction: “their natural state is known as rewilding.”

Explanation:

“There” (a place) is incorrect; it should be “their” (possessive) to refer to the natural state of the land.

17. (d) foul

Complete Sentence:

“The committee suspects a foul play by one of its sports players.”

Explanation:

“Foul play” means dishonest or unfair behavior, making it the correct choice.

Other options do not fit the context.

18. Error: “to complain for the new teacher’s misconduct.”

Correction: “to complain about the new teacher’s misconduct.”

Explanation:

“Complain for” is incorrect; the correct phrase is “complain about” when referring to a grievance.

19. “We have issued passes to all eligible candidates.”

Explanation:

This sentence uses formal language with proper structure and professional wording. The other options contain informal expressions like “shell out,” “guys,” and contractions.

20. “gloomy”

Complete Sentence:

“The thick cloud cover makes for gloomy weather in the winter.”

Explanation:

“Gloomy” means dark, dull, and depressing, which matches the cloudy winter weather.

Other options do not fit the context.

21. (d) for

Complete Sentence:

“I asked him for a solution, and he gave me one.”

Explanation:

“Ask for” is the correct phrase when requesting something.

Other prepositions (to, of, in) do not fit the context.

22. (b) of

Complete Sentence:

“The books of the time period speak of a huge famine which caused massive crisis all over Europe.”

Explanation:

“Speak of” means to mention or talk about something, making it the correct choice.

Other options (to, for, with) do not fit the context.

23. “He’s constantly barging in to disturb my peace.”

Explanation:

“Barging in” is an informal phrase meaning to interrupt rudely.

The other sentences use formal language with professional or polite wording.

24. Answer: (b) The manager, along with his team, is attending the conference.

Explanation: “Along with” does not make the subject plural; the verb should match the singular noun “manager” (i.e., “is attending”).

25. Answer: (a) We regret to inform you that your request has been denied.

Explanation: This sentence is formal and professional, while the others use informal language.

Advanced Coding- 2Questions

Question-1

Solution-
C++ Code-
string toggleCase(string word, bool toUpper) {
    for (char &ch : word) 
        ch = toUpper ? toupper(ch) : tolower(ch);
    return word;
}

string reverseWordsAlternateCase(string s) {
    vector<string> words;
    stringstream ss(s);
    string word;
    
    while (ss >> word) words.push_back(word);
    reverse(words.begin(), words.end());

    string result;
    for (int i = 0; i < words.size(); i++) {
        result += toggleCase(words[i], i % 2 == 1) + " ";
    }
    
    return result.substr(0, result.size() - 1);
}

JAVA Code-

class Main {
    static String toggleCase(String word, boolean toUpper) {
        return toUpper ? word.toUpperCase() : word.toLowerCase();
    }

    static String reverseWordsAlternateCase(String s) {
        String[] words = s.split(" ");
        Collections.reverse(Arrays.asList(words));
        
        StringBuilder result = new StringBuilder();
        for (int i = 0; i < words.length; i++) {
            result.append(toggleCase(words[i], i % 2 == 1)).append(" ");
        }

        return result.toString().trim();
    }

Question-2

Solution-
C++ Code-
void printDiamond(int N) {
    for (int i = 1; i <= N; i++) {
        for (int j = 1; j <= N - i; j++) cout << "  ";
        for (int j = 1; j <= i; j++) cout << j << " ";
        for (int j = i - 1; j >= 1; j--) cout << j << " ";
        cout << endl;
    }
    for (int i = N - 1; i >= 1; i--) {
        for (int j = 1; j <= N - i; j++) cout << "  ";
        for (int j = 1; j <= i; j++) cout << j << " ";
        for (int j = i - 1; j >= 1; j--) cout << j << " ";
        cout << endl;
    }
}

JAVA Code-
class Main {
    static void printDiamond(int N) {
        for (int i = 1; i <= N; i++) {
            for (int j = 1; j <= N - i; j++) System.out.print("  ");
            for (int j = 1; j <= i; j++) System.out.print(j + " ");
            for (int j = i - 1; j >= 1; j--) System.out.print(j + " ");
            System.out.println();
        }
        for (int i = N - 1; i >= 1; i--) {
            for (int j = 1; j <= N - i; j++) System.out.print("  ");
            for (int j = 1; j <= i; j++) System.out.print(j + " ");
            for (int j = i - 1; j >= 1; j--) System.out.print(j + " ");
            System.out.println();
        }
    }

Conclusion

The TCS NQT 2025 All India Mock Test is a vital resource for any candidate aiming to excel in the exam and secure employment at TCS or other leading firms. Consistent practice, effective time management, and thorough analysis of mock test results can significantly elevate the likelihood of achieving success.

Begin your preparation today and take a significant step towards your desired career.

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