IBPS SO Previous Year Questions 2024 – IBPS SO Practice Questions

What is IBPS SO?

IBPS SO Previous Year Questions 2024: IBPS SO Practice QuestionsThe IBPS SO examination is conducted by the Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) to recruit eligible candidates for Specialist Officer (SO) posts in the participating Public Sector Banks. The IBPS has released the IBPS SO Notification 2025 PDF on 30th June 2025 along with complete details. The IBPS SO online registration process for 1007 SO vacancies will begin on 1st July 2025 at the official website www.ibps.in.

IBPS SO Recruitment 2025 Selection Process

The IBPS SO Recruitment process to select Specialist officers through IBPS SO 2025 is done in three phases:

1. Online Preliminary Exam

2. Online Mains Exam

3. Interview Process

A candidate must qualify for both the preliminary exam and the main exam to proceed to the interview round. The candidates selected after the interview round are given the appointment letter.

IBPS SO Previous Year Questions 2024

IBPS SO 2025 Exam Pattern

IBPS will be following the below-detailed exam pattern for shortlisting eligible candidates for IBPS SO 2025 Exam. The previous year, IBPS introduced separate sectional timing for each section in the preliminary exam. Let’s have a look at the revised IBPS SO Exam Pattern.
The preliminary exam will be a qualifying phase for the mains and candidates will have to meet the cut-offs of prelims to be eligible to appear for the Mains exam.
IBPS SO 2025 Prelims Exam Pattern: There are two patterns for IBPS SO prelims examination for different posts. There is a sectional cut-off and candidates have to clear all the sections in order to clear the preliminary exam of IBPS SO 2025.

IBPS SO 2025- Important Dates

The online registration scheduled for IBPS SO 2025 has been released by IBPS along with the IBPS SO Notification 2025 on 30th June 2025. Candidates can start submitting their IBPS SO 2025 Application Form 2025 from 1st July 2025 onwards, and the application link will remain active till 21st July 2025. Let’s have a look at the important dates for the IBPS SO Exam 2025.

IBPS SO Previous Year Paper                                         

1. Verbal Ability
2. Reasoning Ability
3. Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them.

IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

The sum and variation of our biological wealth, known as biodiversity, is essential to the future of this planet. The importance of our planet’s biodiversity was strongly at the United Nations Biodiversity Conference in Montreal, Canada. 188 country representatives adopted an agreement to “halt and reverse” biodiversity loss by conserving 30% of the world’s land and 30% of the world’s oceans, known as the 30×30 pledge.

India currently hosts 17% of the planet’s human population and 17% of the global area in biodiversity hotspots, placing it at the helm to guide the planet in becoming biodiversity champions. In response to this call, the Union Budget 2023 mentioned “Green Growth” as one of the seven priorities or Saptarishis. The emphasis on green growth is welcome news for India’s biological wealth as the country is facing serious losses of natural assets such as soils, land, water, and biodiversity. The National Mission for a Green India aims to increase forest cover and protect existing forested lands.

The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) is particularly significant because of the extraordinary importance of mangroves and coastal ecosystems in mitigating climate change. Finally, the Amrit Dharohar scheme directly mentions our biological wealth and is expected to “encourage optimal use of wetlands, and enhance biodiversity, carbon stock, eco-tourism opportunities and income generation for local communities”.

If implemented in letter and spirit, Amrit Dharohar, with its emphasis on sustainability by balancing competing demands, will benefit aquatic biodiversity and ecosystem services. It is critical that these programmes respond to the current state of the country’s biodiversity with evidence-based implementation. A science-based and inclusive monitoring programme is critical for the success of these efforts. Finally, each of these efforts must be inclusive of local and nomadic communities where these initiatives will be implemented. Traditional knowledge of these communities should be integrated into the implementation plans.

IBPS SO Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1. According to the passage, the 30×30 pledge taken in the United Nations Biodiversity Conference emphasizes on which of the following agenda?

• Curbing and restoring the loss of our biological wealth.
• Effective conservation of at least 30% of the world’s lands and oceans.
• Explore advanced and innovative technologies to nurture agriculture.
• All members of the group will come together to take effective measures.
• Only (a) and (b)

Q2. As mentioned in the passage, what makes India a mentor of the world to become a biodiversity champion?

• India’s geographical location which makes it a suitable habitat for many species.
• India’s occupancy of seventeen percent of the global area in biodiversity hotspots.
• India’s human population which is seventeen percent of the world’s total population.
• Only (b) and (c)
• All of these

Q3. Why is there a need to pursue green growth in India, as mentioned in the passage?

• To restrain the usage of chemicals and pesticides in the harvest.
• Since India is facing a serious crisis of natural assets.
• To promote organic farming to foster economic growth.
• It can reduce the prevalence of air pollution-related diseases
• None of these

Q4. As suggested by the author in the passage, what is the target set under National Mission for Green India?

• It aims at protecting forest lands and enhancing India’s forest cover.
• Ecological restoration of shifting cultivation areas, mangroves and scrubs.
• Its goal is to adopt comprehensive soil health management practices.
• Increase forest-based income of households in and around forest areas.
• None of these
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q5. Which of the following measures is crucial for ensuring success of the government programmes, as mentioned by the author?

• Providing environmental data which should be based on research and analysis.
• Adequate and timely allocation of funds required for programmes implementation.
• Comprehensive monitoring programme that should be based on scientific observations.
• Formation of a separate committee to monitor the execution of programmes.
• None of these

Q6. Which of the following words is a synonym of ‘EMPHASIS’ as highlighted in the passage?

• baffle
• ambiance
• corroboration
• revoke
• stress
• IBPS SO Previous Year Questions 2024

Q7. Which of the following words is an antonym of ‘PROTECT’ as highlighted in the passage?

• refine
• ravage
• abate
• perplex
• ample

Q8. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to the information given in the passage?

• Saptarishis signifies the seven priorities of the Union government.
• Efficient use of wetlands is one of the motives of Amrit Darohar.
• Mangroves and coastal ecosystem play an important role in curtailing climate change.
• Traditional knowledge of local communities should be considered for governmental programmes.
• All are correct
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q9. Which of the following words is the most suitable word for the blank given in the passage?

• decree
• conferred
• articulated
• prevailed
• adjourned

Q10. Which of the following words is a synonym of ‘integrated’?

• convulse
• vitiate
• resonate
• amalgamate
• muffle

Directions (11-20): Read the following passage and answer the given questions based on the information provided in the passage.

A vostro account is an account that domestic banks hold for foreign banks in the former’s domestic currency, in this case, the rupee. Domestic banks use it to provide international banking services to their clients who have global banking needs. It is an integral offshoot of correspondent banking that entails a bank (or an intermediary) to facilitate wire transfers, conduct business transactions, accept deposits and gather documents on behalf of the other bank. It helps domestic banks gain wider access to foreign financial markets and serve international clients without having to be physically present abroad.

The SRVA is an additional arrangement to the existing system that uses freely convertible currencies and works as a complimentary system. For perspective, freely convertible currencies refer to currencies permitted by rules and regulations of the concerned country to be converted to major reserve currencies (like the U.S. dollar or pound sterling) and for which a fairly active market exists for dealings against major currencies. The existing systems thus require maintaining balances and positions in such currencies.

The framework entails three important components, namely, invoicing, exchange rate and settlement. Invoicing entails that all exports and imports must be denominated and invoiced in INR. The exchange rate between the currencies of the trading partner countries would be market-determined. To conclude, the final settlement also takes place in Indian National Rupee (INR). The authorised domestic dealer banks (those authorised to deal in foreign currencies) are required to open SRVA accounts for correspondent banks of the partner trading country. Domestic importers are required to make payment (in INR) into the SRVA account of the correspondent bank against the invoices for the supply of goods or services from the overseas seller/supplier. Similarly, domestic exporters are to be paid the export proceeds (in INR) from the balances in the designated account of the correspondent bank of the partner country.

IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

As for availing an advance against exports, it would be the responsibility of the domestic bank to accord foremost priority to ensure that the available funds are used to meet existing payment obligations, that is, from the already export orders or export payments in the pipeline. All reporting of cross-border transactions is to be done in accordance with the extant guidelines under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999.

Q11. What, according to the author, does the term ‘Vostro account’ imply?

• An account in domestic banks to collect funds in order to sell bank’s own shares
• An account in correspondent bank that holds state government funds
• An account held by domestic bank on behalf of a foreign bank to provide international services to its clients.
• An account that allows to save money in multiple countries, they have higher interest rates but with limited freedom
• An account that provides domestic currency to the foreign shareholders of a company.

Q12. How are exchange rates determined in the framework mentioned in the passage?

• They are fixed by the government of the partner trading country.
• They are determined by authorized domestic dealer banks.
• They are determined by the international market.
• They are fixed against major reserve currencies.
• They are determined by the Foreign Exchange Management Act.
• IBPS SO Previous Year Questions 2024

Q13. Which of the following statements signifies SRVA account, as the passage suggests?

• The SRVA account enables domestic banks to physically operate abroad.
• The SRVA account facilitates wire transfers between international clients.
• The SRVA account converts funds based on the mutually held regulations between the both countries.
• The SRVA account complements existing systems using freely convertible currencies
• None of these

Q14. Which of the following statements with reference to the Vostro account is/are correct?

• Domestic banks use vostro accounts to supply national banking services for local uses.
• Vostro account encourages domestic banks to provide services to international clients
• The account assists domestic banks to expand the financial market globally.
• Only (a) and (b)
• Both (b) and (c)
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q15. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word ‘permitted’, as highlighted in the given

passage.

• Prescribed
• Strolled
• Prohibited
• Ruined
• Rambled

Q16. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘conduct’, as highlighted in the given

passage.

• Operate
• Withhold
• Relinquish
• Possess
• Yield

Q17. Which of the following statements with reference to the domestic bank is/are correct?

• Domestic banks bear the responsibility of ensuring the funds meet the existing payment obligations.
• A domestic bank is obligated to hold a vostro bank for foreign exchanges
• Domestic importers make payments into the SRVA account of the equivalent bank against the invoices for the supply of goods.
• Only (b) and (c)
• Both (a) and (c)

Q18. Choose the most appropriate Synonym of the word ‘designated’, as highlighted in the given

passage.

• Wield
• Distinct
• Incognito
• Assigned
• Harness
• IBPS SO Previous Year Questions 2024

Q19. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word ‘conclude’ , as highlighted in the given

passage.

• Terminate
• Inaugurate
• Persist
• Suspend
• Lapse
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q20. Choose the most appropriate filler from the following words to fill in the blank (I), as highlighted in the given passage.

• pretended
• protract
• indestructible
• adjacent
• executed

Directions (21-25): Each question below has two sentences with blanks, which is indicating that something has been omitted. Find out which of the words from options can be used to fill up the blanks to make sentences meaningful.

Q21. (I) Half of the residents were__________________ to get vaccinated.

(II)People are__________________ to invest money in risky funds.

• quandary
• reluctant
• invasive
• expunge
• relent

Q22. (I) New technology to measure pulse rate is more_____________________ than the earlier one.

(II)Stainless steel blades are designed to provide sharp and_______________ cuts.

• lament
• pledged
• negligible
• inflict
• precise

Q23. (I) Flourished mushroom farming will help farmers to______________________________________________________________________________________________ poverty.

(II) Authorities are hoping to_______________ urban problems the capital is facing.

• alleviate
• aggravate
• amplify
• avalanche
• confront

Q24. (I) Troops were forced to_______________ , when enemy deceived and attacked suddenly.

(II)He was planning to___________________ from the project after he got a new job opportunity.

• merge
• annex
• retreat
• juggle
• append

Q25. (I) Scientists have________________ the galaxy theory after finding the evidence.

(II) The judge acquitted the prisoner after the advocate presented the proof that______________________________________________________________________________________________________ his

innocence.

• propelled
• corroborated
• evoked
• subsided
• muffled

Directions (26-30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The corresponding letter of that part is the answer. If the given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct, then choose option “No error” as answer . (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

Q26. I am looking forward (A)/ to receive back (B)/the cash from (C)/ the company today(D)/ No error (E).

• A
• B
• C
• D
• No error
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q27. He is waking up (A)/ early in the morning (B)/ and goes for a (C)/ morning walk (D)/ No error (E)

• A
• B
• C
• D
• No error
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q28. Some cultures have (A)/adopted the traditional (B)/ Western manner of (C)/ conducting weddings (D).

• A
• B
• C
• D
• No error

Q29. The judicious construction of (A)/ green areas offer even (B)/ more storage capacity at (C)/ times of peak rainfall (D)/ No error (E).

• A
• B
• C
• D
• No error

Q30. The minister advised that (A)/ it was time to (B)/ switch to solar power (C)/ to generate electricity (D)/ No error (E).

• A
• B
• C
• D
• No error

Directions (31-35): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters. For each blank, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate word from the options that fits the blank appropriately.

Ransomwares have emerged as the most                           
(A) of malicious cyberattacks. Here, the
(B) demand hefty payments for the release of withheld data. There are other malwares that could                                                                                                                                        (C) all kinds of computer systems. With the lines between the physical and digital realms blurring rapidly, every critical infrastructure, from transportation, power and banking systems, would become extremely                                                   (D) to the assaults from hostile state and non-state actors. With cyber threats capable of undermining our critical infrastructure, industry and security, a      (E) cyber security policy is the need of the hour.

Q31. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A)?

• optimal
• warhead
• designated
• predominant
• manoeuvred
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q32. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B)?

• sinless
• perpetrators
• companion
• administer
• convicted

Q33. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C)?

• infect
• sluggish
• blast
• recommend
• convey

Q34. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D)?

• preserving
• defending
• vigilant
• endorsing
• vulnerable

Q35. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E)?

• biased
• forbidden
• delicate
• profuse
• comprehensive

Directions (36-40): In each of the questions given below, four words have been highlighted. These four words may or may not have been placed in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that should replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, then select option (e) as your choice.

Q36. Some women have catalyze (A) clean energy-based technologies (B) to adopted (C) their

businesses (D).

• B-D & A-C
• A-C
• A-D & B-C
• A-B & C-D
• No replacement required

Q37. The dependent (A) of a/an acumen (B) is efficacy (C) on the organization (D) of its employees.

• B-D
• A-B
• A-D & B-C
• A-C & B-D
• No replacement required

Q38. According to the evidence (A) given by him, he was not occurred (B) at the spot where the alleged

(C) incident present (D).

• B-D
• A-B
• A-D & B-C
• A-B & C-D
• No replacement required

Q39. It is important (A) to implemented (B) that well-designed and remember (C) interventions can make a difference (D).

• B-D
• A-B
• B-C
• A-B & C-D
• No replacement required

Q40. What issue (A) to the most (B) man common (C) is his bread-and-butter matters (D).

• A-D & B-C
• A-B
• B-C
• A-B & C-D
• No replacement required

Directions (41-45): In each question a word is given, corresponding to it three sentences are given. Choose the correct sentence(s) that has/have the correct usage of the word.

Q41. Liberty

• He has been given the liberty to take his all decisions in life.
  • Patients with mental illness need help, not loss of liberty.
  • It takes many years for a plant to grow liberty to provide fruits.
    • Only (A)
    • Only (B)
    • Only (C)
    • Only (A) and (B)
    • Only (A) and (C)
    • IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q42. Futile

• My friend and I futile a stat-up in the next year.
  • Persistent hard work never turns out futile.
  • It is futile to ask for permission to go out at night.
    • Only (A)
    • Only (B) and (C)
    • Only (C)
    • Only (A) and (B)
    • Only (A) and (C)

Q43. Impediment

• Electronic vehicle charger is still an impediment for buyers to adopt electric vehicles.
  • Most of us eat wheat and rice as impediment foods
    • The tectonic plates continually impediment, push and grate against each other.
      • Only (A)
      • Only (B)
      • Only (C)
      • Only (A) and (B)
      • Only (A) and (C)

Q44. Vandalize

• Investors planning to vandalize advantage of recent price swings.
  • Union Budget is aimed at vandalizing loan sanctions and credit flows.
    • Angry customers had vandalized the store before leaving.
      • Only (A)
      • Only (B)
      • Only (C)
      • Only (A) and (B)
      • Only (A) and (C)

Q45. Disempower

(A) The neighbourhood tribunal met to disempower the prospect of building a park in the subdivision.

(B) The workers in the factory seemed to disempower their supervisor by constantly undermining his authority.

(C) Several districts disempowered their constitutes by taking away their rights to vote and therefore their influence.

(a) Only (A)

(b) Only (A) and (B)

(c) Only (B)

(d) Only (B) and (C)

(e) Only (C)

Directions (46-50): In the following questions, sentences are given with a part in bold. The given phrase in bold may or may not contain an error. If phrase has error, one of the options following can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase which replaces the erroneous phrase will be your answer. If the sentence is correct then select ‘No improvement required’ as your answer.

Q46. I don’t knows that he will like surprise or not.

• know that he will
• know whether he will
• know that he is
• know either he will
• No replacement required

Q47. He exclaimed with sorrow that he auctioned his house last month to pay his debts.

• that he was auctioned
• that he has auctioned
• that he had auctioned
• that he had been auctioned
• No replacement required

Q48. He is only a child and still looks for his parents.

• looks before
• look for
• look after
• looks after
• No replacement required
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q49. Meditation is the best way to get rid of depression than medication.

• the best method to get
• a better way for get
• a better way to get
• the best way for get
• No replacement required

Q50. One of the ways to beat dehydration is to drink before you get thirsty.

• are to drink before
• is to drinking before
• are drink before
• is drinking before
• No replacement required

Directions (51-55): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six boxes are kept one above the other in the form of a stack. Each box is of three different colours- Red, Pink and Blue. Each two boxes are of the same colour.

At most two boxes are kept above box Q. Red colour box is kept above box Q. Only one box is kept between the red colour box and box S which is kept above box Q. Box Q is of pink colour. Only two boxes are kept between box R and box S. Blue colour box is kept two boxes below box T. Box P is kept above box T. Only three boxes are kept between box U and blue colour box.

Q51. Which among the following box is kept at the topmost position in the stack?

• The blue colour box
• Box T
• The pink colour box
• Box P
• Box U

Q52. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

1. No box is kept below box U
   1. Box T is kept adjacent to box Q
   1. Box R is kept below box S
      1. Both I and III
      1. Only III
      1. Both II and III
      1. Only I
      1. All I, II and III

Q53. Which among the following combination is correct?

• Box S- Pink
• Box P- Blue
• Box U- Blue
• Box R- Red
• None of these

Q54. How many boxes are kept between box P and the pink colour box?

• One
• Two
• Three
• Either one or three
• None

Q55. Which among the following colour does box R have?

• Pink
• Red
• Blue
• Either pink or red
• Either blue or pink

Directions (56-60): In each of the questions below some statements are given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q56. Statements:

All Neons are Crayons

Only a few Crayons are Colours No Colours are Paint

Conclusions:

1. Some Neons are Colours
   1. No Crayons is Paint is a possibility
      1. If only conclusion I follows
      1. If only conclusion II follows
      1. If either conclusion I or II follows
      1. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
      1. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q57. Statements:

All Knee is Shoulder Only Shoulder is Legs

At most Shoulder are Beauty 100% Beauty are Lakme Conclusions:

1. No Legs is Lakme
   1. Some Shoulder is Lakme
      1. If only conclusion I follows
      1. If only conclusion II follows
      1. If either conclusion I or II follows
      1. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
      1. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q58. Statements:

All Cloud is May Each May is Lotion No Lotion is Motion Conclusions:

1. No Cloud is Motion
   1. Some May can be Motion
      1. If only conclusion I follows
      1. If only conclusion II follows
      1. If either conclusion I or II follows
      1. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
      1. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q59. Statements:

Only a few Brush is Knife At least Knife is a Cup Some Cup is not Book Conclusions:

1. All Brush can be Knife
   1. Some Knife is not Book
      1. If only conclusion I follows
         1. If only conclusion II follows
         1. If either conclusion I or II follows
         1. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
         1. If both conclusions I and II follow

Q60. Statements:

All HK is PL Some HK is MD

Only a few BR is PL No BR is ZQ Conclusions:

I. Some ZQ is PL

II. No ZQ is PL

(a) If only conclusion I follows

(b) If only conclusion II follows

(c) If either conclusion I or II follows

(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows

(e) If both conclusions I and II follow

Q61. How many such pair of letters are there in the word ‘REPLICATION’, each of which has as many letters between them as they have in the English alphabet (Both in forward and backward directions)?

• None
• One
• Two
• None of these
• Three
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Directions (62-66): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and all of them face north direction. Three persons sit between N and M. M is the only neighbour of Q. As many persons sit between M and N as between N and R. S sits second to the left of R. More than one person sits between N and S. P sits exactly between S and V. Three persons sit between R and P. The number of persons sit to the right of M is one less than the number of persons sit to the left of V. O sits second from one of the ends.

Q62. How many numbers of persons sit in the row?

• 19
• 21
• 18
• 20
• 17

Q63. Who among the following person sits fifth to the right of O?

• S
• P
• R
• None of these
• N

Q64. How many persons sit between M and V?

• Ten
• Eight
• Nine
• Seven
• More than ten

Q65. Which of the following statement is true?

• M sits to the left of O
• More than one person sits between V and O
• N sits sixth from the right end
• Three persons sit to the left of V
• None is true

Q66. If A sits second to the left of Q, then what will be the difference between the number of persons sits to the right of A and the number of persons sit to the left of S?

• 3
• 4
• 2
• 6
• 5

Directions (67-71): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and answer the question given below.

Q67. Eight persons sit around a square table. Four persons sit at the corner and four persons sit at the middle of the sides of the table. All of them are facing towards the table. Who among the following persons sits immediate right of U?

Statements:

1. Two persons sit between U and T. One person sits between T and R. A and B sits adjacent to each other. One person sits between B and T.
   1. Two person sits between T and A. B sits opposite to A. T does not sit at the corner. One person sits between B and W. T sits immediately left of U.
      1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.
      1. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q68. Seven persons are going to attend the music class on different days of the same week starting from Tuesday but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following persons attends music class on Thursday?

Statements:

1. Two persons attend the music class between X and A. A either attends the music class on Tuesday or on Friday. X does not attend class on Monday. One person attends class between X and U.
   1. B attends the class just before R. Two students attend the class between U and B. V attends class before M and after X.
      1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.
      1. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q69. Five persons i.e., Y, N, G, H and I visit to different countries i.e., USA, India, Australia, Japan and China but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following persons visits to Australia?

1. H does not visit to India. I do not visit to the USA and Japan. G does not visit to Japan. Y does not visit to China.
   1. G does not visit to Australia. N does not visit to USA and Japan. H visits to India. Y does not visit the USA.
      1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.
      1. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.
      1. If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
      2. IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions
      3. IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions
      4. IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q70.Eight persons i.e., R, E, Q, W, N, C, X and T sit around a circular table for lunch and all of them are facing towards the center but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following person sits opposite to Q?

1. Two persons sit between X and T. N sits immediately left of T. Two persons sit between N and E.
   1. W and R sit adjacent to each other. One person sits between W and C. E does not sit adjacent to X and C.
      1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
         1. If the data in both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.
         1. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
         1. If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.
         1. If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q71. Seven persons i.e., D-J are sitting in a row facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following persons sits immediate right of H?

I. No one sits to the right of I. Two persons sit between I and F. One person sits between F and G

II. Two persons sit between F and the person who sits immediately right of I. One person sits between I and D. E sits third to the right of D.

(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

(b) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are required to answer the question.

(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(d) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.

(e) If the data in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Directions (72-75): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Point P is 5m south of point Q. Point R is 10m east of point P. Point S is 5m south of point R. Point T is 5m west of point S. Point H is 9m west of point Q.

Q72. If Point U is 10m east of Point Q, then Point S will be how far and in which direction from Point U?

• 10m, north
• 10m, south
• 5m, south
• 5m, north
• 5m, east

Q73. Point S is in which direction with respect to Point Q?

• North-west
• North
• South- east
• East
• North-east

Q74. If Point V is 5m west of Point T, then Point P will be how far and in which direction from Point V?

• 5m, south
• 5m, north
• 10m, south
• 10m, north
• 15m, south

Q75. What is the total distance from point H to point R?

• 19m
• 30m
• 27m
• 24m
• 20m

IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Directions (76-80): Answer the following questions based on the information given below.

Eight people A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S sit around a circular table facing towards the center. Some of them are men and some of them are women. Not more than two same gender persons sit adjacent to each other.

B sits 2nd to the right of A and both of them are of different gender. One person sits between B and R who is not a woman. A man sits 2nd to the right of R. Q sits opposite to B and both are of same gender. C is an immediate neighbour of both Q and A. Immediate neighbours of B are of same gender. S sits opposite to one of the men. None of the immediate neighbours of D are of opposite gender.

Q76. Which of the following statement is true as per the final arrangement?

• D is a man.
• P sits to the immediate right of B.
• P sits opposite to A.
• Q sits to the immediate right of D.
• Q is a woman.

Q77. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of S?

• B
• R
• D
• P
• Q

Q78. What is the position of P with respect to C?

• 3rd to the right
• 2nd to the right
• 3rd to the left
• 4th to the left
• 2nd to the left

Q79. Which of the following pair of persons are of the same gender?

• A and P
• B and P
• Q and D
• C and S
• P and R

Q80. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus forms a group, then who among

the following doesn’t belong to that group?

• B
• R
• D
• Q
• C

Directions (81-83): In this question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and selects the appropriate answer.

Q81. Statements: A > B = C ≤ D, F > C ≥ E, E < G = H

Conclusions: I. H > B II. G < A

• If only conclusion I is true
• If only conclusion II is true
• If either conclusion I or II is true
• If neither conclusion I nor II is true
• If both conclusions I and II are true

Q82. Statements: 45 > 18 = 63, 100 ≥ 45 < 72

Conclusions: I. 72 > 18 II. 100 < 63

• If only conclusion I is true
• If only conclusion II is true
• If either conclusion I or II is true
• If neither conclusion I nor II is true
• If both conclusions I and II are true
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions
• IBPS SO Most Important Previous Year Questions

Q83. Statements: % > * = & ≤ @, $ > & ≥ ^ < ! = #

Conclusions: I. $ > * II. % < #

• If only conclusion I is true
• If only conclusion II is true
• If either conclusion I or II is true
• If neither conclusion I nor II is true
• If both conclusions I and II are true

Directions (84-86): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

In the certain code language:

“Holiday home is dream” is coded as “au bf iu ik” “Home is big decision” is coded as “el iu zk ik”

“Holiday home makes money” is coded as “al cz bf iu” “Home rent earn money” is coded as “mo al iu nz”

Q84. What may be the code of “Rent”?

• mo
• Either mo or nz
• al
• nz
• None of these

Q85. What is the code of “Holiday”?

• al
• bf
• cz
• ik
• None of these

Q86. If “Earn money is good” is coded as “ik al mu nz”, then what may be the code of “Holiday home rent”?

• zk cz mo
• iu nz bf
• iu bf mo
• bf iu al
• None of these

Directions (87-89): Study the following number series carefully and answer the questions given below.

259 674 359 427 783 921

Q87. If all the digits in each number are written in descending order from left to right within the number, then which of the given number will become the third smallest?

• 359
• 259
• 921
• 783
• None of these

Q88. What will be the multiplication of the third digit of second lowest number and third digit of largest number?

• 11
• 9
• 10
• 12
• None of these

Q89. If first and third digit are interchanged within the number, then how many numbers will be divisible by 2?

• Three
• One
• Two
• Four
• None of these

Directions (90-94): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons A-H have different designations i.e., Compliance Officer, Risk Manager, Financial analyst, Relationship Manager, Branch Manager, Loan Officer, Bank Teller and Customer Service Representative in a company. The order of seniority is the same as given above i.e., Compliance Officer is the senior-most designation and Customer Service Representative is the junior-most designation.

There are two designations between H and B. There is at most one designation between B and G. H is senior to B. As many persons between H and G as Junior to B. G is not just senior to B. D is three designations senior to G. Number of persons junior to G is one less than number of persons senior to C. As many persons between H and D as between H and A. There are two designations between C and F. F is junior to B.

Q90. What is the designation of E?

• Bank Teller
• Loan Officer
• Customer Service Representative
• Branch Manager
• None of these

Q91. How many designations are there between A and B?

• More than three
• Three
• One
• Two
• None of these

Q92. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

1. A is the senior most person
   1. B is three designations senior to E
   1. No one is junior to E
      1. Only II
      1. Only I
      1. Both I and II
      1. All are true
      1. None of these

Q93. Who is designated as Loan Officer?

• A
• G
• H
• F
• None of these

Q94. If all the persons are ranked in alphabetical order from junior most to senior most, then how many persons remain at their same designation?

• One
• Two
• Three
• None
• None of these

Q95. Identify the odd one out.

• EHM
• GBI
• MJW
• LMZ
• UCX

Q96. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the 2nd, 5th, 6th and 7th letter from the left end of the word ‘HOPEFUL’ (Using each letter once), then which of the following will be the 2nd letter from right end of the meaningful word thus formed. If more than one meaningful word is formed, then mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, then mark X as your answer?

• Z
• O
• L
• U
• X

Directions (97-99): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a certain code language;

“Voting related issue increases” is coded as “8R@ ( _I_ ) 4V$ 10Q@” “Mostly new (  II  ) activated” is coded as “10R@ 4H@ 10F@ 8U$”

“Income source calculated recently” is coded as “6Q$ (_III_) 12D@ 12H@”

Q97. What comes in ___I___?

• 8H$
• 10E$
• 8H@
• 12H@
• None of these

Q98. What comes in __II__?

• Short
• Profile
• Banker
• Sale
• Picture

Q99. What comes in _III__?

• 6R@
• 10R@
• 6R$
• 10T$
• 12S@

Q100. If 2 is subtracted from all the digits of the given element ‘@9#2$5%7*6&8’ and then @ is replaced by 3, # is replaced by 2, $ is replaced by 6, % is replaced by 5, * is replaced by 7 and & is replaced by 4, then what will be the sum of the digits which are 2nd and 7th from the left end after rearrangement?

• 16
• 19
• 10
• 12
• 15

Directions (101-110): Read the information carefully and answer the following questions. Company A: Twenty employees have salary more than Rs. X. Number of employees having salary equal to and more than Rs. X is twenty-five and the number of employees having salary equal to and less than Rs. X are same as that of employees having more than Rs. X.

Company B: Number of employees having salary equal to X is double that of the employees in A. Ratio of number of employees in A to that of B is 2: 3 and number of employees having salary more than X is thirty.

Q101. Find the ratio of the number of employees having salary less than Rs. X in company A to that of B.

• 3:5
• 5:4
• 1:4
• 3:4
• 2:3

Q102. Ratio of male to female in company A is 2: 3 and the half of the employees in A having salary more than Rs. X is female. If the 12.5% of the total females having salary equal to Rs. X, then find the number of females having salary less than Rs. X.

• 11
• 5
• 10
• 14
• 12

Q103. Find the average number of employees having salary more than Rs. X in both the companies.

• 28
• 22
• 25
• 20
• 15

Q104. Number of employees having salary more than Rs. X in both the company is approximately what percentage more or less that of the employees having less than Rs. X in both the company.

• 53%
• 33%
• 23%
• 63%
• 43%

Q105. Total employees having salary equal to Rs. X in both companies are what percent of total number of employees in B.

• 10%
• 15%
• 20%
• 25%
• 30%

Q106. A boat covers D km downstream in 2T hours and it takes T hours when the boat covers (D – 400) km in still water. If the speed of boat in still water is six time the speed of current, then find the value of D.

• 750
• 710
• 740
• 730
• 700

Q107. P, Q and R together can do a work in 10 days, while Q alone can do a work in 30 days. If P alone takes 16 days less than R to complete the same work, then in how many days R can complete 50% of the same work.

• 20 days
• 15 days
• 24 days
• 18 days
• 30 days

Q108. The average of four (P, Q, R and S) different numbers is 20 and P is 25% less than that of R. If the ratio of Q to that of R is 5 : 4 and the average of P, R and S is 20, then find the difference between P and S.

• 15
• 20
• 13
• 17
• 18

Q109. A and B started a business with investment of Rs. x & Rs. (x +900) respectively. After eight months, B left the business. At the end of a year, the total profit is Rs.1450 and profit share of B is Rs.250 more than that of A. Find value of x.

• Rs.820
• Rs.880
• Rs.860
• Rs.800
• Rs.840

Q110. Two trains P and Q started their respective journey from point X & Y. Speed of train Q is 22 km/hr more than that of train P and distance between point X & Y is 510 km. If both trains meet in 5 hours 40 minutes, then find the speed of trains P and Q respectively (in km/hr).

• 36, 58
• 28, 50
• 46, 68
• 34, 56
• 18, 40

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